Name

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) The most frequently used portal of entry for pathogens is the A) Mucous membranes of the gastrointestinal tract. B) Parenteral route.

C) Mucous membranes of the respiratory tract. D) Skin.

E) All are used equally.

2) Which of the following diseases is not usually contracted by the respiratory route? A) Measles

B) Infectious hepatitis

C) Pneumonia

D) Tuberculosis

E) None of the above

3) Most pathogens that gain access through the skin A) Can penetrate intact skin.

B) Must be injected.

C) Must adhere first while their invasive factors allow them to penetrate. D) Just infect the skin itself.

E) Enter through hair follicles and sweat ducts.

4) The LD50 is a

A) Dose that will cause an infection in 50% of the test population. B) Dose that will kill 50','o of the test population.

C) Dose that will cause an infection in some of the test population. D) Dose that will kill some of the test population. E) Measure of pathogenicity.

5) Which of the following does not contribute to a pathogen's invasiveness?

A) Hyaluronidase B) Toxins C) Ligands D) Capsule E) Cell wall

 

 

6) Which of the following statements is false? A) Hemolysins lyse red blood cells. B) Kinase destroys fibrin clots.

C) Leukocidins destroy neutrophils.

D) Coagulase destroys blood clots.

E) Hyaluronidase breaks down substances between cells.

7) Which of the following statements about exotoxins is generally not true?

A) They are more potent than endotoxins.

B) They are produced by gram-positive bacteria. C) They are not destroyed by heat. D) They have specific methods of action. E) They are composed of proteins.

8) Endotoxins are

A) Specific in their method of action.

B) Part of the gram-negative cell wall. C) Excreted from the cell.

D) Associated with gram-positive bacteria. E) None of the above.

9) Nonspecific resistance is

A) The body's ability to ward off diseases.

B) The body's defense against a particular pathogen. C) The body's defenses against any kind of pathogen. D) The lack of resistance.

E) None of the above.

10) Which of the following is not a mechanical factor to protect the skin and mucous membranes from infection?

 A) Saliva

B) Lysozyme

C) Layers of cells

D) Tears

E) None of the above

11) The function of the "ciliary escalator" is to

A) Remove microorganisms from body cavities.

B) Remove microorganisms from the upper respiratory tract.    C) Remove microorganisms from the lower respiratory tract.

D) Kill microorganisms.

E) All of the above.

12) Which of the following exhibits the highest phagocytic activity?

A) Erythrocytes          B) Neutrophils      C) Lymphocytes   D) Eosinophils      E) Basophils

 

13) Which of the following is not a characteristic of inflammation?

A) Local heat                    B) Swelling                        C) Pain                               D) Redness                         E) Fever

14) Which of these bacteria is not killed by phagocytes? A) Klebsiella pneunnoniae

B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

C) Streptococcus pneumoni(7e

D) Streptococcus pyogenes

E) None of the above

15) Which of the following does not cause vasodilation? A) Lysozymes

B) Histamine

C) Prostaglandins

D) Kinins

E) None of the above

16) Which of the following statements is true? A) Interferon is an antiviral protein. B) Interferon attacks invading viruses. C) Interferon acts against specific viruses. D) Interferon promotes phagocytosis. E) Interferon causes cell lysis.

17) Type of immunity resulting from vaccination. A) Innate resistance

B) Naturally acquired active immunity C) Artificially acquired active immunity D) Artificially acquired passive immunity E) Naturally acquired passive immunity

18) Type of immunity resulting from transfer of antibodies from one individual to a susceptible individual by

means of injection.

A) Naturally acquired active immunity B) Naturally acquired passive immunity C) Artificially acquired active immunity D) Artificially acquired passive immunity E) Innate resistance

 

19) Immunity resulting from recovery from mumps. A) Innate resistance

B) Artificially acquired passive immunity C) Artificially acquired active immunity D) Naturally acquired active immunity E) Naturally acquired passive immunity

20) A human's resistance to canine distemper. A) Artificially acquired passive immunity B) Naturally acquired active immunity C) Artificially acquired active immunity D) Innate resistance

E) Naturally acquired passive immunity

21) Newborns' immunity due to the transfer of antibodies across the placenta. A) Artificially acquired active immunity

B) Innate resistance

C) Artificially acquired passive immunity

D) Naturally acquired active immunity

E) Naturally acquired passive immunity

22) Immunity that is not due to antibodies. A) Naturally acquired passive immunity B) Innate resistance

C) Artificially acquired passive immunity D) Naturally acquired active immunity E) Artificially acquired active immunity

23) Immunity due to injection of tetanus toxoid. A) Artificially acquired active immunity B) Innate resistance

C) Artificially acquired passive immunity D) Naturally acquired active immunity E) Naturally acquired passive immunity

24) Immunity due to injection of an antigen. A) Artificially acquired active immunity B) Naturally acquired active immunity C) Artificially acquired passive immunity D) Innate resistance

E) Naturally acquired passive immunity

 

25) The specificity of an antibody is due to A) The L chains.

B) The variable portions of the H and L chains. C) The H chains.

D) Its valence.

E) The constant portions of the H and L chains.

26) Which of the following is not a characteristic of B cells? A) They have antigen receptors on their surfaces. B) They are responsible for antibody formation. C) They originate in bone marrow. D) They are responsible for the anamnestic response. E) None of the above.

27) Plasma cells are activated by a(n) A) Antigen.

B) T cell.

33) Which of the following is not normally used in a vaccine? A) Live, attenuated bacteria

B) Inactivated viruses

C) Antibodies

D) Toxoid

E) Parts of bacterial cells

 

34) If a patient shows the presence of antibodies against Herpes simplex, this indicates all of the following except A) The patient was near someone who had the disease.

B) The patient may have the disease.

C) The patient may have been vaccinated.

D) A recent transfusion may have passively introduced the antibodies.

E) The patient may have had the disease and has recovered.

35) All of the following are disadvantages of a live virus vaccine except A) Exogenous protein contaminants may be present. B) The live vaccine may revert to a more virulent form. C) Antibody response is not as good as with inactivated viruses. D) Live viruses generally require refrigeration. E) None of the above.

36) Antibodies for serological testing can be obtained from all of the following except A) Viral cultures.

B) Vaccinated humans.

C) Vaccinated animals.

D) Monoclonal antibodies.

E) None of the above.

37) Reaction between an antibody and soluble antigen-forming lattices. A) Neutralization reaction

B) Precipitation reaction

C) Complement fixation

D) Agglutination reaction

E) Immunofluorescence

38) The chemical mediators of anaphylaxis are A) Found in basophils and mast cells. B) Antibodies.

C) Antigens.

D) The proteins of the complement system. E) Antigen-antibody complexes.

39) Hypersensitivity is due to

A) An altered immune response. B) The presence of an antigen. C) Immunity.

D) The presence of antibodies. E) Allergies.

 

40) Which of the following may result from systemic anaphylaxis?

A) Hives

B) Asthma C) Hay fever D) Shock

E) None of the above

41) Which type of graft is least compatible?

A) Autograft

B) Allograft C) Xenograft D) Isograft

E) None of the above

42) Which of the following is not an immune complex disease? A) Rheumatic fever

B) Hemolytic disease of the newborn C) Systemic lupus erythematosus

D) Glomerulonephritis

E) None of the above

43) Adherence of phagocytes may be accomplished by all of the following except A) Complement.

B) Trapping a bacterium against a rough surface. C) Chemotaxis.

D) Lysozyme.

E) Opsonization.

44) Antigens coated with antibodies are susceptible to A) Helper T cells.

B) Phagocytosis.

C) B Cells.

D) Further antibody attack.

E) None of the above.

45) The best definition of an antigen is A) Something foreign in the body. B) A pathogen.

C) A chemical that combines with antibodies.

D) A chemical that elicits an antibody response and can combine with these antibodies.

E) A protein that combines with antibodies.

46) The first antibiotic discovered was

A) Salvarsan.              B) Penicillin.          C) Sulfa drugs.      D) Streptomycin.  E) Quinine.

 

47) Most of the available antimicrobial agents are effective against A) Viruses.

B) Fungi.

C) Bacteria.

D) Protozoa.

E) All of the above.

48) Antimicrobial peptides work by

A) Inhibiting cell-wall synthesis. B) Inhibiting protein synthesis. C) Hydrolyzing peptidoglycan.

D) Disrupting the plasma membrane.

E) Complementary base-pairing with DNA.

49) Semisynthetic penicillins differ from natural penicillins in all of the following respects except that both are A) Bactericidal.

B) Resistant to penicillinase.

C) Broad spectrum.

D) Resistant to stomach acids.

E) None of the above.

50) Which of the following antibiotics is not bactericidal? A) Aminoglycosides

B) Penicillin

C) Rifampins

D) Cephalosporins

E) Polyenes