MULTIPLE
CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that
best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) Spliceosome - removal of introns
B) Transposase - insertion of DNA segments into DNA
C) DNA polymerase - makes a molecule of DNA from a DNA template
D) RNA polymerase - makes a molecule of RNA from an RNA template
E) DNA ligase - joins segments of DNA
2) Which of the following statements is false?
A) The leading strand of DNA is made continuously.
B) Multiple replication forks are possible on a bacterial
chromosome.
C) DNA replication proceeds in one direction around the bacterial
chromosome.
D) The lagging strand of DNA is started by an RNA primer.
E) DNA polymerase joins nucleotides in one direction only.
3) Which of the following is not a product of
transcription?
A) rRNA
B) mRNA
C) A new strand of DNA
D) tRNA
E) None of the above
Table 8.1
Culture 1: F+, leucine+, histidine+
Culture 2: F-, leucine-, histidine-
4) In Table 8.1, what will be the result of
conjugation between cultures 1 and 2?
A) 1 will
remain the same;
2 will
become F+, leucine-, histidine-
B) 1 will
remain the same;
2 will
become F+ and recombination may occur
C) 1 will
become F-, leu-, his-;
2 will
remain the same
D) 1 will
remain the same;
2 will
become F+, leu+, his+
E) 1 will
become F-, leu+, his+;
2 will become
F+, leu-, his-
5) An enzyme produced in response to the
presence of a substrate is called
A) A
repressible enzyme.
B) A
restriction enzyme.
C) An
operator.
D) An
inducible enzyme.
E) A
promoter.
6) Transformation is the transfer of DNA from a
donor to a recipient cell
A) By sexual
reproduction.
B) By
cell-to-cell contact.
C) As naked
DNA in solution.
D) By
crossing over.
E) By a
bacteriophage.
7) Genetic change in bacteria can be brought
about by
A) Conjugation.
B) Mutation.
C)
Transduction.
D)
Transformation.
E) All of
the above.
8) The initial effect of ionizing radiation on
a cell is that it causes
A) Base
substitutions.
B) The cells
to get hot.
C) Bonding between
adjacent thymines.
D) DNA to
break.
E) The
formation of highly reactive ions.
9) According to the operon model, for the
synthesis of an inducible enzyme to occur, the
A) Repressor
must bind to the operator.
B) Repressor
must not be synthesized.
C)
End-product must not be in excess.
D) Substrate
must bind to the repressor.
E) Substrate
must bind to the enzyme.
10) Synthesis of a repressible enzyme is stopped
by
A) The
corepressor binding to the operator.
B) The corepressor-repressor
binding to the operator.
C) The
end-product binding to the promoter.
D) The
substrate binding to the repressor.
E) The
allosteric transition.
Figure 8.2
<GRAPHIC>
11) In Figure 8.2, if base 4 is thymine, what is
base 4'?
A) Adenine
B) Uracil C) Guanine D) Thymine
E) Cytosine
12) In Figure 8.2, if base 4 is thymine, what is
base 11'?
A) Adenine
B) Thymine C) Guanine D) Uracil E) Cytosine
13) In Figure 8.2, base 2 is attached to
A)
Phosphate.
B)
Deoxyribose.
C) Thymine.
D) Ribose.
E) Can't
tell.
14) The damage caused by ultraviolet radiation
is
A) Never
repaired.
B) Repaired
by DNA replication.
C) Cut out
and replaced.
D) Repaired
during transcription.
E) Repaired during
translation.
Table 8.2
Codon on mRNA and corresponding amino
acid
UUA leucine UAA nonsense
GCA alanine AAU sparagine
AAG lysine UGC cysteine
GUU valine UCG, UCU serine
15) (Use Table 8.2.) If the sequence of amino
acids coded for by a strand of DNA is serine-alanine-lysine-leucine, what is
the order of bases in the sense strand of DNA?
A) 3'
AGACGTTTCAAT
B) 3'
UGUGCAAAGUUA
C) 3'
TCTCGTTTGTTA
D) 5' TGTGCTTTCTTA
E) 5'
AGAGCTTTGAAT
16) (Use Table 8.2.) If the sequence of amino
acides coded for by a strand of DNA is
serine-alanine-lysine-leucine, the coding for the antisense strand of
DNA is
A) 3'
UCUCGAAAGUUA
B) 5'
ACAGTTTCAAT
C) 3'
TCACGUUUCAAU
D) 5'
TCTGCAAAGTTA
E) 3' UGUGCAAAGUUA
17) The following steps are used to make DNA
fingerprints. What is the third step?
A) Perform
electrophoresis.
B) Collect
DNA.
C) Add
stain.
D) Digest
with a restriction enzyme.
E) Lyse
cells.
Figure 9.1
<GRAPHIC>
18) How many pieces will EcoRI produce from the
plasmid shown in Figure 9.1?
A) 4 B) 1 C)
5 D) 2 E) 3
19) Which of the following can be used to make
recombinant DNA?
A)
Microinjection
B) Tungsten
"bullets"
C)
Protoplast fusion
D) Transformation
E) All of
the above.
20) The reaction catalyzed by reverse
transcriptase.
A) mRNA
rightarrow cDNA
B) DNA
rightarrow DNA
C) DNA
rightarrow mRNA
D) mRNA
rightarrow protein
E) None
21) Which of the following characterizes the
Domain Bacteria?
A)
Prokaryotic cells; ether linkages in phospholipids
B)
Eukaryotic cells; ester linkages in phospholipids
C) Complex
cellular structures
D)
Multicellular
E)
Prokaryotic cells; ester linkages in phospholipids
22) If two organisms have similar rRNA
sequences, you can conclude all of the following except
A) They will
have similar G-C ratios.
B) They
evolved from a common ancestor.
C) They will
both ferment lactose.
D) They are
related.
E) None of
the above.
23) The outstanding characteristic of the
Kingdom Fungi is
A)
Absorption of dissolved organic matter.
B) All
members are photosynthetic.
C)
Absorption of dissolved inorganic matter.
D) All
members are microscopic.
E) All members
are macroscopic.
24) All of the following are true about the
members of the Kingdom Animalia except
A) They have
eucaryotic cells.
B) They are
multicellular.
C) They use
organic energy sources.
D) They use
organic carbon sources.
E) They can
photosynthesize.
25) Which of the following are found primarily
in the intestines of humans?
A)
Gram-negative aerobic rods and cocci
B)
Facultatively anaerobic gram-negative rods
C) Aerobic,
helical bacteria
D)
Gram-positive cocci
E) None of
the above
26) Staphylococcus and Streptococcus can be
easily differentiated in a laboratory by which one of the following?
A) Cell
shape
B) Ability
to cause disease
C) Gram
stain reaction
D) Growth in
high salt concentrations
E) None of
the above
27) Which of the following genera is an
anaerobic gram-negative rod?
A)
Bacteroides
B) Treponema
C)
Escherichia
D)
Staphylococcus
E) None of
the above
28) Which of the following do you expect to be most
resistant to high temperatures?
A)
Streptococcocus pyogenes
B) Bacillus
subtilis
C) Neisseria
gonorrhoeae
D)
Staphylococcus aureus
E)
Eschericia coli
29) Which of the following is not an enteric?
A) Shigella
B)
Salmonella
C)
Escherichia
D)
Enterobacter
E)
Campylobacter
30) Which of the following is not a
characteristic of spirochetes?
A) Difficult
to culture in vitro
B)
Gram-negative
C) Helical
shape
D) Easily
observed with brightfield microscopy
E) Possess
an axial filament
31) You have isolated a bacterium that grows in
a medium containing an organic substrate and nitrate in the absence of oxygen.
The nitrate is reduced to nitrogen gas. This bacterium is
A) A
photoheterotroph.
B) Gram-negative.
C) A
photoauttoph.
D) A
chemoautotroph.
E) Using
anaerobic respiration.
32) Which of the following lacks a cell wall?
A)
Mycobacterium
B)
Mycoplasma
C) Borrelia
D) Nocardia
E)
Clostridium
33) All of the following statements about fungi
are true except
A) All fungi
have eukaryotic cells.
B) Few fungi
are pathogenic to humans.
C) Most
fungi are aerobic.
D) All fungi
are unicellular.
E) Fungi are
heterotrophic.
34) All of the following statements about
helminths are true except
A) They are
heterotrophic.
B) They are
multicellular animals.
C) Some have
male and female reproductive organs in one animal.
D) All are
parasites.
E) They have
eukaryotic cells.
35) All of the following are true about protozoa
except
A) They have
eukaryotic cells.
B) They may
reproduce sexually.
C) All make
cysts.
D) They may
have flagella or cilia.
E) None of
the above.
36) Which of the following statements is false?
A) Fungal
spores are used in identification of fungi.
B) Fungi
produce sexual spores.
C) Fungal
spores are resting spores to protect the fungus from adverse environmental
conditions.
D) Fungal
spores are for reproduction.
E) Fungi
produce asexual spores.
37) Transmission of helminthic diseases to
humans is usually by
A) Vectors.
B)
Genitourinary route.
C)
Gastrointestinal route.
D)
Respiratory route.
E) All of
the above.
38) Which of the following is not a
characteristic of parasitic platyhelminths?
A) They can
be divided into flukes and tapeworms.
B) They are
hermaphroditic.
C) They are
dorsoventrally flattened.
D) They have
a complete digestive system.
E) None of the
above.
39) All of the following arthropods transmit
diseases while sucking blood from a human host except
A) Kissing
bugs.
B) Fleas.
C) Lice.
D)
Mosquitoes.
E)
Houseflies.
40) A definitive host harbors which stage of a
parasite?
A) Cyst
B) Adult
C) Larva
D)
Miracidium
E) All of
the above
41) In which of the following ways do viruses
differ from bacteria?
A) Viruses
don't have any nucleic acid.
B) Viruses
are filterable.
C) Viruses
are not composed of cells.
D) Viruses
are obligate intracellular parasites.
E) All of
the above.
42) Which of the following provides the most
significant support for the idea that viruses are nonliving chemicals?
A) They are
not composed of cells.
B) They are
chemically simple.
C) They
cannot reproduce themselves outside of a host.
D) They
cause diseases similar to those caused by chemicals.
E) They are
filterable.
43) Which of the following is not a method of
culturing viruses?
A) In
embryonated eggs
B) In cell
culture
C) In
culture media
D) In
laboratory animals
E) None of
the above
44) Bacteriophages and animal viruses do not
differ significantly in which one of the following steps?
A)
Biosynthesis
B)
Penetration
C)
Adsorption
D) Release
E) Uncoating
45) The definition of lysogeny is
A) Lysis of
the host cell due to a phage.
B) When the
burst time takes an unusually long time.
C) The
period during replication when virions are not present.
D) Phage DNA
is incorporated into host cell DNA.
E) None of
the above.
46) A viroid is
A) A
complete, infectious virus particle.
B) A capsid
without a nucleic acid.
C) A naked,
infectious piece of RNA.
D) A
provirus.
E) None of
the above.
Figure 13.1
<GRAPHIC>
47) In Figure 13.1, which of these is a complex
virus?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) All of
the above
48) A clear area against a confluent
"lawn" of bacteria is called a
A) Cell
lysis.
B) Pock.
C) Plaque.
D) Phage.
E) None of
the above.
49) Continuous cell lines differ from primary
cell lines in that
A)
Continuous cell lines can be maintained through an indefinite number of
generations.
B) Viruses
can be grown in continuous cell lines.
C)
Continuous cell lines are derived from primary cell lines.
D)
Continuous cell lines are from human embryos.
E)
Continuous cell lines always have to be reisolated from animal tissues.
50) A slow viral infection is an infection in
which
A) Host cells
are gradually lysed.
B) The
disease process occurs gradually over a long period.
C) Viral
replication is unusually slow.
D) The virus
remains in equilibrium with the host without causing a disease.
E) Host
cells are transformed.
1) Answer:
D
2) Answer:
C
3) Answer:
C
4) Answer:
A
5) Answer:
D
6) Answer:
C
7) Answer:
E
8) Answer:
E
9) Answer:
D
10) Answer:
B
11) Answer:
A
12) Answer:
B
13) Answer:
B
14) Answer:
C
15) Answer:
A
16) Answer:
D
17) Answer:
D
18) Answer:
D
19) Answer:
E
20) Answer:
A
21) Answer:
E
22) Answer:
C
23) Answer:
A
24) Answer:
E
25) Answer:
B
26) Answer:
D
27) Answer:
A
28) Answer:
B
29) Answer:
E
30) Answer:
D
31) Answer:
E
32) Answer:
B
33) Answer:
D
34) Answer:
D
35) Answer:
C
36) Answer:
C
37) Answer:
C
38) Answer:
D
39) Answer:
E
40) Answer:
B
41) Answer:
C
42) Answer:
C
43) Answer:
C
44) Answer:
A
45) Answer:
D
46) Answer:
C
47) Answer:
B
48) Answer:
C
49) Answer:
A
50) Answer:
B