Name: 
 

FINAL EXAM/Microeconomics/ Spring 2002/ Instructor:James Sondgeroth



Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

1. 

(I-1) When economists speak of scarcity, they are referring to the
a.
condition in which society is not employing all its resources in an efficient way.
b.
condition in which people's wants outstrip the limited resources available to satisfy those wants.
c.
economic condition that exists in only very poor countries of the world.
d.
condition in which society produces too many frivolous goods and not enough socially desirable goods.
 

2. 

(I-2) Choice is fundamentally a consequence of
a.
living in a world where there are both goods and bads.
b.
how wealthy one is.
c.
the existence of evil.
d.
scarcity.
e.
opportunity cost.
 

3. 

(I-3) An free good is distinguished from an economic good by the fact that
a.
it is scarce.
b.
it has a positive price.
c.
at zero price the quantity demanded of it is greater than the quantity supplied.
d.
at zero price the quantity demanded of it is less than the quantity supplied.
e.
a, b, and d.
 

4. 

(I-4) When an economist assumes that the owners of firms are motivated only by the desire to maximize profits, the economist believes that
a.
the assumption is descriptively accurate, since surveys have been taken and the owners of firms have admitted that their only objective is to maximize profits.
b.
the assumption is inaccurate, since surveys have been taken and the owners of firms have admitted that they care about more than only profits.
c.
it doesn't matter whether the assumption is descriptively accurate or not; what matters is whether a theory built on the assumption predicts well.
d.
none of the above
 

5. 

(I-5) Opportunity cost is the value of
a.
the next best forfeited alternative.
b.
the chosen alternative.
c.
a free good.
d.
an economic good.
 

6. 

(I-5) What is the reason for the law of increasing costs?
a.
There is no reason: it just is.
b.
People have varying abilities and those with lower opportunity costs of producing a good produce it before people with higher opportunity costs produce it.
c.
The price of a good rises as more of it is demanded.
d.
As more of a good is produced, the taxes applied to the production of the good rise.
e.
c and d
 
 
Exhibit A

mcspringfinal2002_files/i0080000.jpg
 

7. 

(I-6) Refer to Exhibit A. A price of $6 in the market will result in a
a.
shortage of 10 units.
b.
surplus of 10 units.
c.
surplus of 5 units.
d.
shortage of 5 units.
 
 
Exhibit B

mcspringfinal2002_files/i0100000.jpg
 

8. 

(I-7) Refer to Exhibit B. Which graph depicts a discovery of a new cheap source of energy?
a.
(1)
b.
(2)
c.
(3)
d.
(4)
e.
none of the above
 

9. 

(I-8) Market pricing as a kind of automatic signalling system that responds to changes in relative scarcities and rapidly redirects economic activity is part of
a.
the capitalist vision
b.
the socialist vision
c.
both the capitalist and the socialist vision.
d.
neither the capitalist nor the socialist vision.
 

10. 

(I-8) “In every exchange, one party gains at the expense of the other party. There is always a winner and a loser.” This statement would be held as true by ________ thinkers.
a.
some capitalist.
b.
all capitalist.
c.
all socialist.
d.
neither capitalist nor socialist.
 

11. 

(I-9) Where in the Cirular Flow of Economic Activity does the capitalistic economic system answer the question of "to whom is output to be distributed?"
a.
Final Goods and Services Market
b.
Factor Market
c.
Households
d.
Business Firms
 

12. 

(I-9) In the Circular Flow of Economic Activity, __________  determine(s) "what will be produced."
a.
the government
b.
households
c.
the final goods and sevices market
d.
the money market
e.
big, global corportations
 
 
Exhibit C

Country 1
        Good A            Good B
Country 2
      Good A             Good B                                         
200                   0
160                  20
120                  40
80                   60
40                  80
1                  100

75                    0
60                  10
45                  20
30                  30
15                  40
0                   50
 

13. 

(I-10) Refer to Exhibit C. Country 1 has a comparative advantage in the production of __________, and country 2 has a comparative advantage in the production of __________.
a.
good A; good B
b.
good B; good A
c.
both goods; neither good
d.
neither good; both goods
e.
neither good; neither good
 
 
Exhibit D

mcspringfinal2002_files/i0180000.jpg
 

14. 

(I-12) Refer to Exhibit D. A movement from point Z to point Y would have been the result of
a.
a price reduction.
b.
an increase in population.
c.
an improvement in technology.
d.
a change in a nonprice factor.
 

15. 

(I-12) The law of demand states (everything else unchanged)
a.
that goods will be supplied to just equal consumer demand.
b.
that consumer demand will determine the level of firm supply.
c.
that consumers will buy more of a good if its price rises.
d.
that consumers will buy more of a good if its price falls.
 

16. 

(I-12) An increase in the price of Ford cars will have what likely effect in the market for Honda cars?
a.
It will have no effect.
b.
The demand for Hondas will increase.
c.
The demand for Hondas will decrease.
d.
The supply of Hondas will increase.
 

17. 

(I-13) Resource X is necessary to the production of good Y. If the price of resource X rises,
a.
the supply curve of Y shifts leftward.
b.
the supply curve of Y shifts rightward.
c.
the supply curve of Y is unaffected.
d.
there is a movement down the supply curve of Y.
e.
there is a movement up the supply curve of Y.
 

18. 

(I-14) If there is an increase in the supply of a good,
a.
the demand for the good will increase.
b.
the price of the good will fall and the quantity purchased will decrease.
c.
the price of the good will fall and the quantity purchased will rise.
d.
the price of the good will rise and the quantity purchased will rise.
 

19. 

(I-14) Which of the following statements represents a correct and sequentially accurate economic explanation?
a.
X and Y are substitutes. The price of X falls, the quantity demanded of X rises, and the demand for Y rises.
b.
X and Y are substitutes. The price of X rises, the demand for X falls, and the demand for Y rises.
c.
X and Y are substitutes. The price of X falls, the demand for X rises, and the quantity demanded of Y rises.
d.
X and Y are substitutes. The price of X falls, the quantity demanded of X rises, and the demand for Y falls.
e.
X and Y are complements. The price of X falls, the quantity demanded of X rises, and the demand for Y falls.
 
 
Exhibit E

mcspringfinal2002_files/i0250000.jpg
 

20. 

(I-15) Refer to Exhibit E. At $6 the surplus equals
a.
350 units.
b.
150 units.
c.
200 units.
d.
There is no surplus at $6.
 

21. 

(I-15) If  rent controls for apartments were established in Austin below the present going rental rates,  we could expect
a.
a building boom in new apartments to start.
b.
equilibrium rents to fall below the rates set by rent control.
c.
a surplus in apartments to develop.
d.
a shortage in apartments to develop.
 

22. 

(II-1) If the percentage change in quantity demanded is greater than the percentage change in price, demand is
a.
inelastic.
b.
unit elastic.
c.
elastic.
d.
perfectly elastic.
e.
perfectly inelastic.
 

23. 

(II-2) A good will tend to have a low price elasticity of demand if
a.
it has few substitutes.
b.
a person spends a high percentage of his or her budget on it.
c.
a person has a long period of time to adjust to price changes.
d.
the good is expensive.
 

24. 

(II-3) An inferior good is
a.
any good that consumers think is of low quality.
b.
a good for which the quantity demanded decreases as its price increases.
c.
a good for which the demand rises as income falls.
d.
a good for which the demand rises as income rises.
e.
any good that a producer cannot sell a large quantity of, even at a low price.
 

25. 

(II-4) When it comes to the behavior of economic agents, economic theory
a.
assumes everyone would be better off if a kind, gentle, and all knowing government made decisions for individuals.
b.
realizes that people are ignorant of their own self-interest.
c.
assumes that it is very destructive for people to be acting in their own self-interest.
d.
assumes people know what is best for themselves and they act accordingly.
 

26. 

(II-5) Which of the following is true?
a.
It is possible for total utility to rise as marginal utility falls.
b.
Marginal utility is the same as total utility.
c.
It is possible for marginal utility to rise as total utility falls.
d.
a and c
 

27. 

(II-5) If the total utilities corresponding to the first five units of a good consumed are 10, 15, 19, 22, and 24, respectively, what is the marginal utility of the fourth unit?
a.
22
b.
5
c.
4.5
d.
4
e.
3
 

28. 

(II-6) Given two goods, X and Y, and their prices, PX and PY a consumer will maximize utility by allocating expenditures such that
a.
MUX/PY = MUY/PX.
b.
PY/MUX = PX/MUY.
c.
MUX/PX = MUY /PY.
d.
MUX = PX = MUY = PY = MU$.
e.
MUX = MUY = PX = PY = MU$.
 
 
Exhibit F

mcspringfinal2002_files/i0350000.jpg
 

29. 

(II-7) Refer to Exhibit F. Linda spends $5 a week on apples and oranges. If the price of both goods is $1 per unit, what is Linda's total utility from consuming the optimal bundle of goods?
a.
85
b.
86
c.
88
d.
209
e.
279
 

30. 

(II-8) The diamond-water paradox is illustrated by which of the following statements?
a.
Water, a necessity, has a relatively low price whereas diamonds, usually a luxury, have a relatively high price.
b.
Although water appears to have a relatively low price when compared to diamonds, in reality, it has a relatively higher price.
c.
Although water appears to have a relatively low price when compared to diamonds, in reality, the prices are equal.
d.
Although water appears to have a relatively low price when compared to diamonds, at the margin, water has the relatively higher price.
e.
Although water appears to have a relatively low price when compared to diamonds, at the margin, the prices are equal.
 

31. 

(II-9) The Alchian and Demsetz theory of why business firms exist suggests that
a.
there are only advantages to team production.
b.
disadvantages of team production may outweigh the disadvantages of individual production.
c.
individual production is more efficient than team production.
d.
the sum of team production is sometimes greater than the sum of individual production.
 

32. 

(II-10) When you buy a corporate bond, you are
a.
borrowing funds from the corporation.
b.
lending funds to the corporation.
c.
selling an ownership right in the corporation.
d.
acquiring an ownership right in the corporation.
e.
b and d
 

33. 

(II-11) Which of the following statements is true?
a.
Explicit costs always equal implicit costs.
b.
Economic profit is a larger dollar figure than accounting profit.
c.
Zero economic profit is a larger dollar figure than normal profit.
d.
Saying that a firm earned zero economic profit is the same as saying it earned normal profit.
e.
none of the above
 

34. 

(II-12) It would be possible to produce the world's present supply of wheat in a flowerpot if it were not for the law of
a.
demand.
b.
supply.
c.
comparative advantage.
d.
diminishing marginal returns.
 

35. 

(II-13) The demand curve that a perfectly competitive firm seems to face
a.
is downward sloping.
b.
is upward sloping.
c.
is perfectly horizontal.
d.
is perfectly vertical.
e.
may be downward or upward sloping, depending upon the type of product offered for sale.
 
 
Exhibit G

mcspringfinal2002_files/i0430000.jpg
 

36. 

(II-14) Refer to Exhibit G. Curve B is a(n) __________ cost curve.
a.
marginal
b.
average variable
c.
average total
d.
average fixed
 

37. 

(II-15) The perfectly competitive firm's short-run supply curve is the
a.
upward-sloping portion of its average total cost curve.
b.
horizontal portion of its marginal revenue curve.
c.
portion of its average variable cost curve that lies above the average fixed cost curve.
d.
upward-sloping portion of its marginal cost curve.
e.
portion of its marginal cost curve that lies above its average variable cost curve.
 

38. 

(III-1) If, in a competitive industry, P > ATC, then
a.
losses in the industry would cause some existing firms to exit the industry.
b.
positive economic profit would attract firms to the industry in order to obtain the profits.
c.
firms would not be producing the quantity of output at which MR = MC.
d.
firms would not be covering total fixed costs.
e.
none of the above
 

39. 

(III-2) The firm's factor demand curve is the
a.
MRP curve if the firm is a price taker (perfectly competitive firm).
b.
MFC curve if the firm is a price taker (perfectly competitive firm).
c.
VMP curve if the firm is a price searcher (monopolist, monopolistic competitor, oligopolist).
d.
MFC curve if the firm is a price searcher (monopolist, monopolistic competitor, oligopolist).
 

40. 

(III-3) A decrease in the wage rate
a.
shifts the supply curve of labor leftward.
b.
decreases the quantity supplied of labor.
c.
shifts the supply curve of labor rightward.
d.
increases the quantity supplied of labor.
 

41. 

(III-4) If all the individuals had the same innate and learned skills and abilities, applied the same degree of effort on the job, and worked with the same amount and quality of other factors of production,
a.
all labor supply curves would be horizontal.
b.
all labor demand curves would be horizontal.
c.
wages in different markets would differ less than they currently do.
d.
the quantity of labor supplied would decrease in all markets.
e.
the demand curve for capital would be upward sloping.
 

42. 

(III-5) If the price for loanable funds is less than the return on capital, then firms will
a.
borrow in the loanable funds market and invest in capital goods, and as this happens, the quantity of capital decreases and its return rises.
b.
borrow in the loanable funds market and invest in capital goods, and as this happens, the quantity of capital increases and its return falls.
c.
not borrow in the loanable funds market, and over time the capital stock will decrease and the return on capital will fall.
d.
not borrow in the loanable funds market, and over time the capital stock will decrease and the return on capital will rise.
 

43. 

(III-6) The supply of factor X is perfectly inelastic and it receives a price of $100. It follows that
a.
the entire $100 is pure economic rent.
b.
part of the $100 is pure economic rent.
c.
factor X does not receive any economic rent.
d.
any payment above the price of $100 is economic rent.
e.
none of the above
 

44. 

(III-7) Profits may exist as the result of
a.
uncertainty.
b.
alertness to arbitrage opportunities.
c.
innovation.
d.
all of the above
e.
none of the above
 

45. 

(III-8) The marginal productivity theory states that
a.
as variable inputs are added to a fixed quantity of other inputs eventually the additional output produced by each additional variable input will decrease.
b.
inputs will be used most efficiently when the additional output gained from each type of input is exactly the same.
c.
firms in perfectly competitive product and factor markets will pay factors their marginal revenue products.
d.
marginally productive inputs (that is, inputs that are not particularly productive) will not be heavily utilized.
 

46. 

mcspringfinal2002_files/i0540000.jpg

(III-9) Refer to Exhibit 4. Which of the following Lorenz curves illustrates the income distribution in the table at the top of Exhibit 4?
a.
A
b.
B
c.
C
d.
D
e.
none of them
 

47. 

(III-10) In 1998, the poverty income threshold for a family of four was approximately
a.
$9,000.
b.
$11,000.
c.
$16,600.
d.
$20,500.
 

48. 

(III-11) The marginal productivity normative standard of income distribution states that people
a.
are paid their marginal revenue products.
b.
should be paid their marginal revenue products.
c.
should be paid the wage that does the most to reduce income inequality.
d.
should be paid more for hard jobs than easy jobs.
 

49. 

(III-12) A natural monopoly exists when
a.
a monopolist produces a product, the main component of which is a natural resource.
b.
economies of scale are so large that only one firm can survive and achieve low unit costs.
c.
a firm controls all the rights to a scarce resource.
d.
there are no close substitutes for a firm's product.
 

50. 

(III-13) The perfectly competitive firm charges a price equal to __________ while the monopolist charges a price __________.
a.
marginal revenue; equal to marginal cost
b.
marginal cost; greater than marginal cost
c.
marginal cost; equal to marginal revenue
d.
average total cost; greater than average total cost
 



 
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